Question 1
A 70-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes is concerned about the risk of hypoglycemia with his medications. Which of the following medications is least likely to cause hypoglycemia?
A) Gliclazide
B) Glimepiride
C) Glyburide
D) Sitagliptin
E) Repaglinide
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Correct Answer: D) Sitagliptin
Explanation: Sitagliptin, a DPP-4 inhibitor, works by increasing insulin release in a glucose-dependent manner, which minimizes the risk of hypoglycemia. Other options like gliclazide, glimepiride, and glyburide are sulfonylureas that stimulate insulin release independently of glucose levels, thereby increasing the risk of hypoglycemia.
Question 2
A 28-year-old woman presents with symptoms of vaginal discharge and a fishy odor but no significant pain or itching. The physician suspects bacterial vaginosis. Which of the following descriptions best matches the typical presentation of bacterial vaginosis?
A) Itching, white, thick discharge
B) Inflammation with mild pain and malodorous discharge
C) Itching with purulent discharge
D) Severe pain and thick green discharge
E) Fishy odor, thin gray discharge
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Correct Answer: E) Fishy odor, thin gray discharge
Explanation: Bacterial vaginosis typically presents with a fishy odor and a thin gray or white discharge. There is often no significant inflammation or itching, which helps differentiate it from other types of vaginitis like yeast infections or trichomoniasis.
Question 3
In the body, nitric oxide (NO) plays an essential role in vasodilation and other physiological functions. Which amino acid is the primary source of the nitrogen atom in nitric oxide?
A) L-Arginine
B) Alanine
C) Leucine
D) Glycine
E) Tyrosine
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Correct Answer: A) L-Arginine
Explanation: L-Arginine is the main precursor for nitric oxide (NO) synthesis in the body. Through the action of nitric oxide synthase, arginine is converted to NO, which is involved in various cellular signaling processes.
Question 4
You have a patient who has recently transitioned from male to female (transgender) and is visiting your pharmacy for the first time. What is the most appropriate instruction you should give to your staff regarding how to address this patient?
A) Ask him whether he’d like to be called as a male or female
B) Use gender-neutral language if the patient doesn’t want to discuss the matter
C) Refer to the patient according to the gender listed in the pharmacy system
D) Avoid discussing the topic until the patient brings it up
E) Use only the name provided in the prescription
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Correct Answer: B) Use gender-neutral language if the patient doesn’t want to discuss the matter
Explanation: It is respectful and inclusive to use gender-neutral language if the patient does not indicate a preference. This approach shows sensitivity and respect for the patient’s identity and privacy. Asking directly about gender preference may be uncomfortable for some individuals, so it is often better to use neutral terms initially unless the patient specifies otherwise.
Question 5
A patient who was recently prescribed erythromycin reports experiencing gastrointestinal side effects and is no longer willing to take the medication. You decide to call the prescribing physician to discuss changing the prescription. What is the most assertive and appropriate way to recommend an alternative while speaking to the physician?
A) “I am sorry to disturb you, do you have time to discuss Mrs. FH’s case?”
B) “Are you aware that the erythromycin you prescribed caused gastrointestinal side effects for Mrs. FH?”
C) “I am calling about Mrs. FH. She says she can’t take erythromycin due to gastrointestinal side effects. Would you consider prescribing azithromycin instead?”
D) “Is it possible to switch Mrs. FH to another antibiotic since she’s experiencing side effects with erythromycin?”
E) “Should I suggest to Mrs. FH that she takes erythromycin with food to reduce the gastrointestinal effects?”
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Correct Answer: C) “I am calling about Mrs. FH. She says she can’t take erythromycin due to gastrointestinal side effects. Would you consider prescribing azithromycin instead?”
Explanation: This option is assertive and professionally suggests a solution to the issue. Azithromycin is often better tolerated than erythromycin, and the response is appropriate for addressing the physician directly with a clear recommendation.
Question 6
A patient has been prescribed codeine for pain management but reports that she is taking more than the prescribed dose with no noticeable effect. What is the most likely cause?
A) Hepatic impairment
B) Renal impairment
C) She is a poor codeine metabolizer
D) She has a high tolerance to codeine
E) She has a rapid metabolism of codeine
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Correct Answer: C) She is a poor codeine metabolizer
Explanation: Codeine is metabolized to morphine via the CYP2D6 enzyme. If a patient is a poor metabolizer of codeine, the conversion to morphine is minimal, resulting in reduced analgesic effects. Hepatic or renal impairment would more likely affect the drug’s clearance but not necessarily reduce its effectiveness at the receptor level.
Question 7
A patient’s lab results show a high concentration of basic amino acids in their blood. Which of the following amino acids is considered the most basic?
A) Alanine
B) Arginine
C) Phenylalanine
D) Methionine
E) Leucine
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Correct Answer: B) Arginine
Explanation: Arginine is considered the most basic amino acid due to its high pKa and tendency to bind protons, resulting in a positive charge. Other basic amino acids include lysine and histidine, while alanine, phenylalanine, methionine, and leucine are not basic. The basic nature of arginine is due to its side chain containing nitrogen, which is capable of proton binding.
Question 8
A patient with insomnia has been prescribed sertraline to help manage symptoms. After how long should the patient expect to start noticing an improvement in their sleep and mood symptoms?
A) 1-2 days
B) 1-2 weeks
C) 2-4 weeks
D) 4-6 weeks
E) 6-8 weeks
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Correct Answer: C) 2-4 weeks
Explanation: Sertraline, an SSRI, generally takes 2-4 weeks for patients to begin noticing significant effects on mood and sleep, though individual response times may vary.
Question 9
For the same patient with insomnia who has been started on sertraline, how long should they wait before having a follow-up appointment to fully assess the effectiveness of the therapy?
A) 2-4 weeks
B) 4-6 weeks
C) 6-8 weeks
D) 8-10 weeks
E) 10-12 weeks
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Correct Answer: C) 6-8 weeks
Explanation: To properly assess the therapeutic effects of sertraline, a follow-up after 6-8 weeks is generally recommended. This allows adequate time to evaluate both therapeutic effects and potential side effects.
Question 10
What technique is commonly used to protect light-sensitive ingredients in pharmaceutical formulations?
A) Film coating
B) Enteric coating
C) Sugar coating
D) Compression coating
E) Microencapsulation
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Correct Answer: A) Film coating
Explanation: Film coating is often used to protect light-sensitive ingredients from degradation, as it creates a barrier that can reduce exposure to light.
Question 11
Which of the following is not a common symptom associated with rhabdomyolysis?
A) Kidney failure
B) Muscle cramps and pain
C) Muscle weakness
D) Dark urine
E) Odor in urine
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Correct Answer: E) Odor in urine
Explanation: While rhabdomyolysis often presents with symptoms such as muscle pain, weakness, dark urine, and potentially kidney failure, odor in urine is not typically associated with this condition.
Question 12
A patient with atrial fibrillation is being treated to control their heart rate. Which medication is most appropriate for decreasing heart rate in this case?
A) Digoxin
B) Amlodipine
C) Amiodarone
D) Acebutolol
E) Verapamil
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Correct Answer: A) Digoxin
Explanation: Digoxin is commonly used in patients with atrial fibrillation to slow the heart rate by increasing vagal tone. Other options like amlodipine and amiodarone can also affect heart rate but are not typically first-line choices for rate control in atrial fibrillation.
Question 13
Which of the following medications is used for the prophylaxis of migraines?
A) Tramadol
B) Naratriptan
C) Topiramate
D) Carbamazepine
E) Nifedipine
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Correct Answer: C) Topiramate
Explanation: Topiramate is an anticonvulsant often prescribed for migraine prophylaxis. Naratriptan is used for acute migraine treatment rather than prevention, while other options listed are not standard for migraine prophylaxis.
Question 14
Gingival hyperplasia is a condition that affects which part of the body?
A) Gums
B) Lips
C) Cheeks
D) Tongue
E) Jaw
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Correct Answer: A) Gums
Explanation: Gingival hyperplasia is an overgrowth of gum tissue around the teeth and is commonly associated with medications like phenytoin, cyclosporine, and calcium channel blockers.
Question 15
What is the mechanism of action of montelukast?
A) Leukotriene receptor antagonist
B) Histamine receptor antagonist
C) Beta-2 agonist
D) Corticosteroid
E) Mast cell stabilizer
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Correct Answer: A) Leukotriene receptor antagonist
Explanation: Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist that helps prevent bronchoconstriction and inflammation in conditions like asthma by blocking the action of leukotrienes.
Question 16
A study was conducted to compare the effect of two different treatments on lowering blood pressure. Group A had 50 participants who received Treatment A, and Group B had 50 participants who received Treatment B. After one month, the number of participants whose blood pressure decreased significantly was 30 in Group A and 20 in Group B. Calculate the relative risk reduction (RRR) for Treatment A compared to Treatment B.
A) 0.2
B) 0.3
C) 0.4
D) 0.5
E) 0.6
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Correct Answer: C) 0.4
Question 17
A patient is given an intravenous bolus dose of a drug with a volume of distribution (Vd) of 70 L. The desired peak plasma concentration (Cp) is 5 mg/L. What is the appropriate dose to administer?
A) 140 mg
B) 200 mg
C) 250 mg
D) 350 mg
E) 400 mg
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Correct Answer: D) 350 mg
Explanation:
Therefore, the correct dose to administer is 350 mg.
Question 18
A patient requires a continuous infusion of a medication. The desired steady-state concentration (Css) is 10 mg/L, and the clearance (Cl) of the drug is 1.5 L/h. Calculate the infusion rate needed to achieve this steady-state concentration.
A) 5 mg/h
B) 10 mg/h
C) 12 mg/h
D) 15 mg/h
E) 20 mg/h
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Correct Answer: B) 10 mg/h
Explanation:
Therefore, the infusion rate needed is 15 mg/h.
Question 19
What is the most common cause of acute otitis media in preschool children?
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Moraxella catarrhalis
E) Klebsiella pneumoniae
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Correct Answer: A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation: The primary pathogens responsible for acute otitis media in children include Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Moraxella catarrhalis. In contrast, acute otitis externa is commonly associated with Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Staphylococcus aureus.
Question 20
Which of the following organisms less frequently causes community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) in otherwise healthy individuals?
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Chlamydophila pneumoniae
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
E) Legionella spp.
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Correct Answer: A) Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation: Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is commonly caused by organisms like Streptococcus pneumoniae, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Chlamydophila pneumoniae. Staphylococcus aureus can cause CAP but is less frequently seen in otherwise healthy individuals compared to the other organisms listed and is more commonly associated with hospital-acquired pneumonia.
Question 21
Which bacterium is the causative agent of syphilis, often presenting with chancre or chancroid lesions on the genitals?
A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) Clostridium difficile
C) Treponema pallidum
D) Haemophilus ducreyi
E) Staphylococcus aureus
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Correct Answer: C) Treponema pallidum
Explanation: Syphilis is caused by Treponema pallidum, a bacterium that typically presents with a chancre in the early stages of infection. This differentiates it from other infections such as gonorrhea and chancroid, which are caused by different pathogens.
Question 22
Which of the following is considered the most teratogenic virus, capable of causing birth defects such as deafness?
A) Herpes simplex virus
B) Herpes zoster virus
C) Rubella virus
D) Human papillomavirus
E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
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Correct Answer: C) Rubella virus
Explanation: Rubella is highly teratogenic and can cause severe congenital defects, including deafness, cataracts, and heart defects, especially when contracted during the first trimester of pregnancy. Other teratogenic viruses include cytomegalovirus and varicella-zoster virus.
Question 23
Which cell type is responsible for producing carbonic anhydrase, an enzyme crucial in CO₂ transport and hydrochloric acid formation?
A) Reticulocytes
B) Myocytes
C) Pneumocytes
D) Astrocytes
E) Erythrocytes
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Correct Answer: E) Erythrocytes
Explanation: Carbonic anhydrase is primarily found in erythrocytes (red blood cells), where it aids in the conversion of CO₂ and water to carbonic acid, supporting CO₂ transport. It is also present in gastric mucosa and other tissues, contributing to the formation of hydrochloric acid in the stomach.
Question 24
Which form of contraception is not recommended to be taken as a regular tablet schedule immediately after delivery?
A) Progesterone injection
B) Progesterone-only pills after 4 weeks
C) Intrauterine device (IUD) after 4 weeks
D) Combined oral contraceptives (OCPs)
E) Oral contraceptives after 1 week
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Correct Answer: D) Combined oral contraceptives (OCPs)
Explanation: Combined OCPs are generally not recommended immediately after delivery due to an increased risk of blood clots. Progesterone-only options or an IUD are often safer choices postpartum, while combined OCPs should only be used later when it is safe to do so.
Question 25
After obtaining a Notice of Compliance (NOC) following Phase 3 clinical trials, what is the next step for manufacturers?
A) Apply for patent
B) Apply for a Drug Identification Number (DIN)
C) Begin selling the drug on the market
D) Continue clinical trials
E) Seek regulatory marketing authorization
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Correct Answer: C) Begin selling the drug on the market
Explanation: After receiving a Notice of Compliance (NOC), manufacturers can proceed to market and sell the drug, provided it has received a Drug Identification Number (DIN) in Canada, confirming it meets regulatory standards for distribution and sale.
Question 26
Which pathogen is most commonly associated with impetigo in preschool children?
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Streptococcus pyogenes
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Moraxella catarrhalis
E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
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Correct Answer: A) Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation: Impetigo is typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus, and sometimes Streptococcus pyogenes, especially in children. It is a contagious bacterial infection that presents with sores around the nose and mouth.
Question 27
All of the following are common symptoms of acute renal failure, except:
A) Pedal edema
B) Swelling
C) Pitting edema
D) Hypertension
E) Reduced urine output
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Correct Answer: D) Hypertension
Explanation: Hypertension is generally associated more with chronic kidney disease rather than acute renal failure. Common symptoms of acute renal failure include swelling, edema, hematuria, and reduced urine output, reflecting the sudden decline in kidney function.
Question 28
What is the primary function of a plasmid?
A) Protein synthesis in the cell
B) Energy storage in the mitochondria
C) DNA recombination and cloning
D) RNA transcription
E) Cell membrane formation
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Correct Answer: C) DNA recombination and cloning
Explanation: Plasmids are small, circular DNA molecules found in bacteria that can replicate independently. They are often used in DNA recombination and cloning due to their ability to carry foreign genes.
Question 29
What type of monoclonal antibody is Rituximab?
A) Rat
B) Human
C) Chimeric
D) Mice
E) Humanized
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Correct Answer: C) Chimeric
Explanation: Rituximab is a chimeric monoclonal antibody, meaning it is composed of both human and mouse elements, typically 25% mouse and 75% human.
Question 30
Which is the recommended treatment for a 6-month-old infant with constipation?
A) Milk of magnesia
B) Polyethylene glycol (PEG) or glycerin suppository
C) Docusate
D) Bisacodyl
E) Senna
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Correct Answer: B) Polyethylene glycol (PEG) or glycerin suppository
Explanation: For infants, glycerin suppositories are often preferred for treating constipation, as they are safe and effective for young children.
Question 31
What is the primary role of neutrophils in the primary immune response?
A) Engulfing pathogens through phagocytosis
B) Producing antibodies
C) Releasing inflammatory lipid mediators
D) Activating T-cells
E) Neutralizing toxins
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Correct Answer: A) Engulfing pathogens through phagocytosis
Explanation: Neutrophils are the first responders in the immune system and engulf pathogens through phagocytosis, helping to control infections at an early stage.
Question 32
Which of the following is a common side effect of isotretinoin?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Teratogenicity
C) Urinary retention
D) Bradycardia
E) Eczema
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Correct Answer: B) Teratogenicity
Explanation: Isotretinoin is highly teratogenic, and its use is associated with risks of severe birth defects. Other common side effects include mucocutaneous dryness, myalgia, arthralgia, and photosensitivity.
Question 33
Which contraceptive method is recommended for a woman during breastfeeding?
A) Combined oral contraceptives (COCs)
B) Progesterone-only pills
C) Injectable COCs
D) Copper IUD within 2 weeks
E) Any hormonal method immediately postpartum
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Correct Answer: B) Progesterone-only pills
Explanation: Progesterone-only methods are preferred during breastfeeding as they do not affect milk supply. Combined oral contraceptives (COCs) may be avoided, especially within the first 6 weeks postpartum.
Question 34
Which vaccine is administered at 1 year old and boosted at preschool age (4-5 years)?
A) MMR vaccine
B) Polio vaccine
C) Hepatitis B vaccine
D) Pneumococcal vaccine
E) Meningococcal vaccine
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Correct Answer: A) MMR vaccine
Explanation: The MMR vaccine is typically given around 1 year old, with a booster administered at 4-5 years of age.
Question 35
How should breast milk be stored for optimal safety and freshness?
A) Refrigerated for up to 48 hours
B) Freezer for up to 1 year
C) Room temperature for up to 12 hours
D) Refrigerated after feeding for up to 24 hours
E) Room temperature for 24 hours
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Correct Answer: D) Refrigerated after feeding for up to 24 hours
Explanation: Fresh expressed breast milk can be stored for up to 5 days in the refrigerator and up to 12 months in a chest freezer. After feeding, remaining milk can be refrigerated for up to 24 hours.
Question 36
A 32-year-old woman is diagnosed with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) and is beginning treatment. What is generally considered the first-line therapy for managing SLE?
A) Tacrolimus
B) NSAIDs
C) Immunosuppressants
D) Hydroxychloroquine sulfate
E) Methotrexate
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Correct Answer: D) Hydroxychloroquine sulfate
Explanation: Hydroxychloroquine sulfate is commonly used as a first-line therapy in managing SLE due to its effectiveness in reducing symptoms and preventing flare-ups. It has both anti-inflammatory and immunomodulatory properties.
Question 37
A patient presents with symptoms of Linezolid toxicity, including headache, diarrhea, cytopenias (anemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia), and optic neuropathy. When prescribing medications, caution should be taken with which type of drugs due to the risk of serotonin syndrome?
A) NSAIDs
B) Serotonergic drugs
C) Beta blockers
D) Anticoagulants
E) Antibiotics
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Correct Answer: B) Serotonergic drugs
Explanation: Linezolid has MAOI properties and can lead to serotonin syndrome when combined with serotonergic medications. It is contraindicated if used within 2 weeks of an MAOI.
Question 38
Pantothenic acid (Vitamin B5) acts as a coenzyme in the synthesis of which compound, essential for the metabolism of proteins, carbohydrates, and fats?
A) ATP
B) Coenzyme Q10
C) Coenzyme A (CoA)
D) Glutathione
E) Biotin
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Correct Answer: C) Coenzyme A (CoA)
Explanation: Pantothenic acid (Vitamin B5) is vital for synthesizing Coenzyme A (CoA), which is essential for metabolizing proteins, carbohydrates, and fats.
Question 39
In which neurological condition are β-amyloid plaques primarily found?
A) Parkinson’s disease
B) Schizophrenia
C) Alzheimer’s disease
D) Huntington’s disease
E) Multiple sclerosis
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Correct Answer: C) Alzheimer’s disease
Explanation: Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by the presence of β-amyloid plaques in the brain, which contribute to the progression of neurodegeneration associated with the condition.
Question 40
The COX-2 enzyme is primarily involved in which of the following functions?
A) Blood clotting
B) Regulating renal function
C) Producing prostaglandins for inflammation, pain, and fever
D) Maintaining gastric mucosa
E) Supporting immune responses
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Correct Answer: C) Producing prostaglandins for inflammation, pain, and fever
Explanation: COX-2 is an enzyme that promotes the production of prostaglandins, which play a key role in inflammation, pain, and fever.
Question 41
A pharmacist is conducting a medication review with a patient and frequently uses open-ended questions. What is the primary reason for a pharmacist to use open-ended questions during patient consultations?
A) To limit the patient’s responses to “yes” or “no” answers
B) To quickly gather specific information from the patient
C) To encourage the patient to provide more detailed and comprehensive information
D) To reduce the duration of the consultation
E) To confirm the patient’s understanding of complex medical terms
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Correct Answer: C) To encourage the patient to provide more detailed and comprehensive information
Explanation: Open-ended questions are used by pharmacists to allow patients to share more detailed information about their health concerns, medication experiences, and symptoms, which can lead to better patient-centered care and a fuller understanding of the patient’s condition.
Question 42
A patient is hospitalized with pneumonia, and Levofloxacin is considered as the first-line treatment option. In which situation would Levofloxacin be the preferred choice?
A) For cases of pneumonia caused by Legionella sp.
B) For outpatient treatment of Streptococcus pneumonia
C) When the patient has a mild allergy to macrolides
D) As an initial treatment for community-acquired pneumonia in children
E) For fungal pneumonia in immunocompromised patients
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Correct Answer: A) For cases of pneumonia caused by Legionella sp.
Explanation: Levofloxacin is preferred as a first-line treatment in pneumonia cases caused by Legionella sp., a bacterium associated with atypical pneumonia. Levofloxacin provides effective coverage for Legionella and can serve as an alternative for patients in hospital settings where a beta-lactam/macrolide combination is not suitable.
Question 43
A pharmacy is administering influenza shots during a busy day. What is the best practice for managing vaccinations in this setting?
A) Set up a dedicated vaccination area to ensure privacy
B) Provide vaccines only to those with scheduled appointments
C) Offer free consultations only to those receiving the vaccine
D) Limit vaccinations to the elderly due to time constraints
E) Administer vaccines on a first-come, first-served basis regardless of privacy
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Correct Answer: A) Set up a dedicated vaccination area to ensure privacy
Explanation: Setting up a dedicated area for vaccinations helps maintain patient privacy and ensures a safe and organized environment, especially during busy times. This approach helps manage a high volume of patients effectively.
Question 44
Where should a pharmacist store vaccines in the refrigerator, and what temperature requirements should be met?
A) Store in the door compartment and check daily
B) Place on the top shelf between 2-8° C
C) Put on the middle shelf with a thermometer at 2-8° C and check/document temperature twice daily
D) Store in the freezer for optimal storage
E) Store in the same compartment as medications that do not need refrigeration
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Correct Answer: C) Put on the middle shelf with a thermometer at 2-8° C and check/document temperature twice daily
Explanation: Vaccines should be stored on the middle shelf in a refrigerator maintained at 2-8° C. A thermometer should be used to monitor this temperature, and it should be checked and documented twice daily to ensure the vaccine’s efficacy and safety.
Question 45
A child was successfully treated with Amoxicillin for otitis media but has developed another infection 3 weeks later. What is the recommended treatment?
A) Amoxicillin for 5 days
B) Amoxicillin/Clavulanate for 10 days
C) Clotrimazole for 7 days
D) Clindamycin for 14 days
E) Azithromycin for 3 days
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Correct Answer: B) Amoxicillin/Clavulanate for 10 days
Explanation: After treatment failure with high-dose Amoxicillin, Amoxicillin/Clavulanate is recommended, especially in cases of recurring infections. Clindamycin is reserved for patients with true beta-lactam allergies or previous treatment failures.
Question 46
Who is responsible for monitoring and maintaining hospital quality standards in Canada?
A) Health Canada
B) The Canadian Pharmacists Association
C) The Public Health Agency of Canada
D) Hospital Administrators and Hospital Boards
E) The College of Physicians and Surgeons
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Correct Answer: D) Hospital Administrators and Hospital Boards
Explanation: In Canada, Hospital Administrators and Boards are primarily responsible for monitoring quality and ensuring standards within hospitals. They oversee quality improvement measures and compliance with national healthcare standards.
Question 47
How is Plant/Herbal Medicine regulated in Canada?
A) By Health Canada’s Therapeutic Products Directorate (TPD)
B) By the Natural and Non-prescription Health Products Directorate (NNHPD)
C) By the College of Physicians and Surgeons
D) By Canadian Food Inspection Agency (CFIA)
E) By Canada Border Services Agency (CBSA)
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Correct Answer: B) By the Natural and Non-prescription Health Products Directorate (NNHPD)
Explanation: In Canada, Plant and Herbal Medicines are regulated by the Natural and Non-prescription Health Products Directorate (NNHPD), which is responsible for overseeing the safety, efficacy, and quality of these products.
Question 48
A child is experiencing otitis media recurrence less than 3 months after initial treatment. What is the recommended antibiotic therapy?
A) Amoxicillin for 10 days
B) Amoxicillin/Clavulanate for 10 days
C) Clindamycin for 5 days
D) Azithromycin for 3 days
E) Amoxicillin for 5 days
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Correct Answer: B) Amoxicillin/Clavulanate for 10 days
Explanation: For otitis media recurrence within 3 months of initial treatment, Amoxicillin/Clavulanate is recommended for 10 days to address potential resistance and enhance treatment efficacy.
Question 49
Which of the following provides Special Access to drugs not commercially available in Canada?
A) Therapeutic Products Directorate (TPD)
B) Special Access Programme (SAP)
C) Natural and Non-prescription Health Products Directorate (NNHPD)
D) Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
E) Health Canada
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Correct Answer: B) Special Access Programme (SAP)
Explanation: Canada’s Special Access Programme (SAP) allows healthcare providers to request access to drugs not available in Canada for patients with serious or life-threatening conditions when standard treatments are ineffective or unavailable.
Question 50
A pharmacist needs to calculate how many calcium tablets to provide based on milliequivalents (mEq) and the molecular weight. What information is most essential?
A) The patient’s age
B) The tablet size
C) The conversion from mEq to mg based on molecular weight
D) The recommended daily intake
E) The available brands of calcium tablets
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Correct Answer: C) The conversion from mEq to mg based on molecular weight
Explanation: To determine the number of tablets needed, the conversion factor from milliequivalents to milligrams using the molecular weight of calcium is necessary, as it calculates the precise dosage required.
Question 51
The drug release from an osmotic tablet is primarily influenced by which factor?
A) pH level in the gastrointestinal tract
B) Presence of enzymes
C) Solubility and osmotic pressure of the core components
D) The patient’s diet
E) The type of filler used in the tablet
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Correct Answer: C) Solubility and osmotic pressure of the core components
Explanation: In an osmotic tablet, the drug release rate depends on factors such as solubility, osmotic pressure of the tablet core, the size of the delivery orifice, and the rate-controlling membrane.