Welcome back to yet another article titled ‘PEBC evaluating exam sample questions’.
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Table of Contents for PEBC evaluating exam sample questions
PEBC evaluating exam sample questions
Question 1: JT is a 35-year-old person who has been experiencing recurrent abdominal pain and discomfort for the past six months. JT reports that the symptoms often improve after defecation but are associated with changes in the frequency and form of the stools. JT alternates between periods of constipation and diarrhea. They have also noticed increased bloating and gas during this period. Their diet and stress levels have remained relatively unchanged. JT is concerned and decides to visit a healthcare provider. Based on the given information, answer the following questions.
Question 1.1: Which of the following is most likely JT’s diagnosis?
A. Crohn's Disease
B. Ulcerative Colitis
C. Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)
D. Celiac Disease
E. Gastroenteritis
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Answer: C
Question 1.2: Which of the following drugs cannot be used for JT’s constipation?
A. Polycarbophil
B. Prucalopride
C. Linaclotide
D. Pinaverium
E. Eluxadoline
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Answer: E
Drugs used in Irritable Bowel Syndrome with Constipation: Psyllium, polycarbohil, PEG, Lactulose, Linaclotide (if psyllium and polycarbophil fail), Prucalopride, Antispasmodics like Pinaverium, Dicyclomine, or Trimebutine.
Drugs used in Irritable Bowel Syndrome with Diarrhea: Loperamide, Diphenoxylate atropine, Eluxadoline (mu and kappa agonist, and delta antagonist), Cholestyramine, Ondansetron, and Rifaximin.
Question 1.3: Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)?
A. Gender
B. Age
C. Family History
D. Smoking
E. Psychological Factors
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Answer: D
Risk factors for irritable bowel syndrome: Gender, age (late adolescence to early adulthood), family history, psychological factors, previous intestinal infections, food intolerances, altered gut microbiota, hormonal changes (especially in women), early life stress, and dietary factors.
Question 2: JT is a 45-year-old man who has been experiencing persistent upper abdominal pain for the past three months. The pain is often worse at night and is sometimes relieved by eating. He also reports occasional nausea and a feeling of bloating. JT has a history of smoking more than two packs of cigarettes daily for the past 20 years. Additionally, JT has epilepsy, for which he takes antiepileptic medication daily. He visited his doctor, who suspects he might have a peptic ulcer. Answer the following questions based on the given information.
Question 2.1: Based on JT’s history, which of the following is the main risk factor for developing a peptic ulcer?
A. High caffeine intake
B. Consumption of fast food
C. Smoking more than two packs of cigarettes daily
D. Use of antiepileptic medication
E. Social alcohol consumption
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Answer: C
Risk factors for peptic ulcers: Smoking, Alcohol (Excessive alcohol), Diet (high-fat diet), Stress – Use mnemonic “SADS”
Question 2.2: Which of the following is contraindicated for JT’s smoking cessation therapy?
A. Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT)
B. Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT)
C. Interpersonal therapy (IPT)
D. Bupropion
E. Over-the-counter (OTC) herbal supplements
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Answer: D
Bupropion is contraindicated in seizures and psychosis.
Question 3: ‘JT’s Pharmacy’, a local pharmacy stocking a variety of medications and healthcare products, reported the following financial data over the past year: Beginning inventory value of $150,000, ending inventory value of $200,000, and cost of goods sold (COGS) totaling $600,000. Based on the financial data provided, what is the inventory turnover ratio for City Pharmacy?
A. 2.6
B. 3.4
C. 4.8
D. 5.1
E. 6.0
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Answer: B
Image: Explanation of the answer
Question 4: Which of the following is a characteristic symptom of preeclampsia?
A. Hematochezia
B. Hematouria
C. Glucosuria
D. Hyperuricemia
E. Proteinuria
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Answer: E
A. Hematochezia: Passage of fresh blood through the anus with stools.
B. Hematuria: Presence of red blood cells in urine.
C. Glucosuria: Presence of glucose (sugar) in urine.
D. Hyperuricemia: Elevated uric acid levels in the blood.
E. Proteinuria: Presence of excess protein in the urine.
Question 5: Under which of the following conditions would a pharmacist refer a patient with diaper rash to a doctor?
A. If the rash is mild and appears for the first time
B. If the rash is accompanied by fever or blisters and pus
C. If the rash improves with frequent diaper changes
D. If the rash occurs during hot weather
E. If the rash responds to barrier creams
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Answer: B
Fever and pus are indicative of an infection requiring a prescription for antibiotics.
Question 6: JT is a 29-year-old female who comes to the pharmacy with a fungal infection on her feet. The pharmacist wants to check the reference before recommending some over-the-counter products to JT. Which of the following references should the on-duty pharmacist check?
A. CTMA
B. RXTX
C. Cochrane database
D. Health Canada DPD
E. Pubmed
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Answer: A
CTMA is the reference for self-care and over-the-counter drug recommendations.
Question 7: Which of the following is the correct option to report a drug’s side effects?
A. Canada vigilance program
B. Health Canada
C. NAPRA
D. Marketed products directorate
E. Medeffect website
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Answer: E
MedEffect Canada and the Canada Vigilance Program are both correct.
- Canada Vigilance Program
- This is a paper-based reporting tool
- MedEffect Canada
- ADR can be reported via phone or online
- This is a better choice as it is more convenient to report online
This question can also come as a case:
“A 58-year-old woman visits your pharmacy and tells you that she developed a severe skin rash after starting a new prescription medication two days ago. She is concerned that it may be a reaction to the drug and asks you if there is a formal way to report this side effect to health authorities in Canada. She wants to ensure that her experience is recorded to help others. As a pharmacist, which of the following is the most appropriate channel to report this suspected adverse drug reaction?”
Question 8: Refugees get their health insurance under which of the following healthcare plans?
A. Interim Health benefits
B. Special Access Program
C. Non Insured Health Benefit Programs
D. Provincial and Territorial Health Care Program
E. Interprovincial Health Coverage
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Answer: A
Interim Health Benefits supports refugees for the first year.
Question 9: Which of the following best describes the roles and responsibilities of CADTH?
A. Conducting clinical trials for new medications
B. Providing evidence-based recommendations on drugs and health technologies
C. Regulating pharmaceutical advertising
D. Licensing healthcare providers
E. Manufacturing pharmaceutical products
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Answer: B
CADTH is a not-for-profit organization funded by federal, provincial, and territorial governments.
New name of CADTH = Canada’s Drug Agency
Question 10: Which of the following is the next step after a drug receives Notice of Compliance (NOC) in Canada?
A. Applying for approvals to sell the drug in market
B. Marketing and distributing the drug
C. Applying for patent
D. Conducting Phase 3 clinical trials
E. Apply for Phase 3 clinical trials
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Answer: B
Note for other creators: If you like any images on this blog, feel free to use them. Just give a link to the URL where you found the picture.
Question 11: Which of the following needs to be monitored in a patient who is vomiting constantly?
A. Calcium
B. Potassium
C. Bicarbonate
D. Iron
E. Sodium
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Answer: B
Vomitting – metabolic alkalosis – loss of potassium or hypokalemia
Diarrhea – metabolic acidosis – loss of bicarbonate
Question 12: A 72-year-old male patient with a history of atrial fibrillation (AF) comes to your pharmacy for a medication review. He has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He is not currently on any anticoagulant therapy. You are assessing his risk of stroke based on his clinical profile. Which of the following is a risk factor for stroke in a patient with atrial fibrillation?
A. Male sex
B. Controlled hypertension
C. Physically active female
D. Diabetes mellitus
E. Smoking history more than 10 years ago
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Answer: D
Question 13: Which of the following is a risk factor for stroke in a patient with atrial fibrillation?
A. Age above 65 years
B. History of atrial fibrillation
C. Diet with a low sodium intake
D. BMI of 24
E. DASH diet
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Answer: A
Recent history of stroke or TIA, Age, Hypertension, and atrial fibrillation are the major risk factors for stroke. Hypertension & recent history of stroke or TIA are the most important risk factors.
Question 14: If an uneducated person cannot sign a consent form, what is the most appropriate action to take?
A. Skip the consent part and proceed with the procedure
B. Ask a family member to sign on their behalf without explanation
C. Explain the consent form verbally in a way the person can understand and then have them sign
D. Refuse to provide the care or service
E. No need to do anything is consent is implied in this case
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Answer: C
Tip:
The patient cannot read or write, but they can understand. So, the service provider needs to explain the procedure, risks, and benefits. Understand that the person here is uneducated, not incapacitated.
Question 15: A woman with a seizure smokes 2 cigarettes per day. She comes to the pharmacy seeking some help with smoking cessation. What is the pharmacist’s recommendation?
A. Bupropion
B. Vernacilline
C. Nicotine Replacement Therapy
D. Amitriptyline
E. Cognitive Behavioral Therapy
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Answer: E
Question 16: JT, a pharmacist, is reviewing his recent interactions with patients. He wants to ensure that his actions align with legal and professional responsibilities to avoid liability. Which of the following situations best illustrates JT’s liability as a pharmacist?
A. JT dispenses a medication as prescribed, but the patient has an unexpected allergic reaction.
B. JT accidentally provides incorrect dosage instructions, leading to the patient's overdose.
C. JT gives advice on diet and exercise for general health improvement.
D. JT helps a customer choose an over-the-counter medication for a cold.
E. JT refuses to fill a prescription because he suspects it is fraudulent.
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Answer: B
The following are 2 different meanings of liability
- Employers’ or employees’ actions leading to harm and negative consequences
- Liability in business terminology is what you owe to other businesses or parties
Question 17: Which of the following is considered the most credible study?
A. Meta analysis
B. Systematic review
C. Randomized Clinical trials
D. Case series
E. Case study
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Answer: A
📊 Evidence Hierarchy
| Level | Source | Type | Why It’s Here |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1️⃣ | Meta-analysis | Secondary research | Combines multiple RCTs for the most generalizable conclusions |
| 2️⃣ | Systematic Review | Secondary research | Structured synthesis of multiple studies, sometimes includes meta-analysis |
| 3️⃣ | Clinical Guidelines | Expert synthesis | Evidence-based recommendations derived from high-level data and consensus |
| 4️⃣ | N-of-1 Trials | Personalized experimental | Gold standard for individual care; high internal validity for single patients |
| 5️⃣ | Randomized Controlled Trials (RCTs) | Primary research | Gold standard for population-level studies; high internal validity |
| 6️⃣ | Cohort / Case-Control Studies | Observational | Useful for identifying associations, not causation |
| 7️⃣ | Case Series | Descriptive | Collection of cases without a control group; hypothesis-generating |
| 8️⃣ | Case Reports / Case Studies | Anecdotal | Lowest reliability; useful for rare findings or early insights |
Question 18: A 58-year-old male presents with palpitations and dizziness. His ECG reveals a prolonged QT interval. He is currently on escitalopram, ondansetron, and ciprofloxacin. Which of the following is the most appropriate clinical intervention?
A. Continue all medications and monitor ECG weekly
B. Discontinue ciprofloxacin and replace with a non-QT-prolonging antibiotic
C. Start amiodarone to prevent arrhythmias
D. Add metoprolol to control heart rate
E. No intervention is needed unless symptoms worsen
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Answer: B
💡 Explanation:
- Prolonged QT interval increases the risk of torsades de pointes, a potentially fatal arrhythmia.
- Escitalopram, ondansetron, and ciprofloxacin all prolong the QT interval.
- Removing one or more QT-prolonging drugs (especially if alternatives are available) is recommended.
- Amiodarone and metoprolol are not appropriate unless a specific arrhythmia is diagnosed.
Question 19: A drug has a volume of distribution (Vd) of 50 liters and a clearance (Cl) of 4 liters per hour. What is the elimination half-life (t½) of the drug?
A. 3 hours
B. 5 hours
C. 8.5 hours
D. 9.5 hours
E. 12 hours
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Answer: D
Explanation:
The elimination half-life (t½) can be calculated using the formula: t1/2 = 0.693 * (Vd/Cl)
Question 20: A 16-year-old girl comes to the pharmacy and asks for emergency contraceptive pills. For which of the following reasons would the pharmacist refer her to a doctor?
A. Irregular Menses
B. History of emergency contraceptive pill use
C. The girl has headache
D. The girl's age
E. Diarrhea
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Answer: A
Question 21: A pharmaceutical company is applying for a new botanical product to sell in the market. Which of the following is the correct type of approval for this product?
A. Radiopharmaceuticals
B. Biologics
C. Drug Identification number
D. Vaccine
E. Natural Health Product Number
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Answer: E
Question 22: In a randomized clinical trial comparing two groups investigating surrogate endpoints for diabetes management, which of the following is the most appropriate surrogate endpoint?
A. Blood glucose levels after a meal
B. Death related to cardiovascular events
C. Blood pressure control
D. HbA1c levels
E. Amputation of limbs
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Answer: D
Question 23: A woman taking levothyroxine became pregnant. Which of the following is the pharmacist’s recommendation for her?
A. Increase the dose of Levothyroxine
B. Discontinue Levothyroxine
C. Decrease the dose of Levothyroxine
D. Switch Levothroxine with Meyhimazole
E. No change is required as Levothyroxine is safe to use in pregnancy
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Answer: A
Question 24: JT is a 74-year-old male taking Omeprazole with Ibuprofen for his osteoarthritis. Recently, he was diagnosed with anemia. Which of the following statements is true cause for JT’s anemia?
A. Haemorrhage due to prolonged use of NSAIDS
B. Reduced absorption of Vitamin B12
C. Increased RBC lysis
D. High absorption of Cobalamin
E. Deficiency of Iron
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Answer: B
Question 25: Why is Polyethylene Glycol (PEG) added to Diazepam injection?
A. Preservative
B. Universal Buffer
C. Antioxidant
D. Viscosity enhancer
E. Surfactant
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Answer: E
Question 26: A 45-year-old patient has been prescribed itraconazole capsules for the treatment of a fungal infection. During counseling, which of the following instructions should the pharmacist provide regarding the administration of itraconazole?
A. Take the capsules on an empty stomach with a full glass of water
B. Take the capsules with a full meal to improve absorption
C. Take the capsules with an antacid to reduce gastric irritation
D. Take the capsules at bedtime to avoid dizziness
E. Crush the capsules if you have difficulty swallowing
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Answer: B
- Itraconazole capsules require gastric acid and food for optimal absorption.
- Taking it with food enhances bioavailability.
- Antacids and acid-suppressing drugs can reduce absorption.
- Capsules should not be crushed.
- Timing (e.g., bedtime) is not critical for effectiveness but should align with food intake.
Question 27: Which of the following is the most abundant intracellular cation?
A. Sodium
B. Calcium
C. Potassium
D. Magnesium
E. Chloride
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Answer: C
Mnemonic: PISO = Potassium In Sodium Out
Question 28: Which of the following is not used to treat Pseudomonas infection?
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Amikacin
C. Piperacillin
D. Ceftazidime
E. Vancomycin
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Answer: E
- Vancomycin is effective against Gram-positive organisms, especially MRSA and other resistant Staphylococci and Enterococci. It has no activity against Gram-negative organisms, including Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Question 29: A patient is admitted with vomiting and diarrhea. ECG shows polymorphic ventricular tachycardia with a twisting QRS axis around the baseline (torsades de pointes). Electrolytes reveal low magnesium and potassium. Which is the best immediate treatment?
A. Amiodarone
B. Magnesium sulfate
C. Lidocaine
D. Atropine
E. Beta-blockers
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Answer: B
Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for torsades, regardless of serum magnesium level.
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Quite impressive and helpful. Keep posting such Q.